AAPC CPC Practice Exam - 120 Questions & Answers
Build practical coding confidence with a five-part, single-best-answer practice exam covering compliance, ICD-10-CM, CPT, HCPCS Level II, non-surgical coding, and advanced case studies.
- 120 Practice Questions
- Detailed Explanations
- High-Yield Review Notes
- 2026-Reviewed Source Edition
Detailed Explanations
High-Yield Review Notes
Five-Part Practice Format
What You Receive
The source practice exam contains 120 questions arranged into five parts, with answer keys, detailed explanations, and high-yield review notes.
120 Practice Questions
Single-best-answer A-D questions designed for structured CPC exam preparation.
Detailed Explanations
Each question is followed by a keyed answer and a detailed explanation in the answer section.
High-Yield Review Notes
Focused review notes reinforce coding conventions, distinctions, and common exam-day traps.
Scenario-Based Practice
Clinical, coding, compliance, and billing scenarios help you apply concepts rather than rely only on recall.
Advanced Case Studies
The final part contains 20 advanced case-study questions combining code selection and documentation details.
Digital PDF
Designed for convenient study on compatible computers, tablets, and mobile devices.
What This Practice Exam Covers
The topics below are taken from the actual five-part structure of the source document.
25 questions
25 questions
25 questions
25 questions covering anesthesia, radiology, pathology, and medicine
20 questions
Who This Practice Exam Is For
A focused supplementary resource for learners who want additional CPC-style coding practice.
- Candidates preparing for the Certified Professional Coder (CPC) exam
- Medical coding students reviewing CPT, ICD-10-CM, and HCPCS concepts
- Working medical coders refreshing compliance and documentation knowledge
- Learners who benefit from answer explanations and high-yield review notes
Practice With a Clear Study Purpose
Apply Knowledge
Work through realistic multiple-choice situations involving diagnosis, procedure, compliance, and billing concepts.
Find Weaker Areas
Use missed questions and explanations to identify topics that deserve additional review in current official references.
Build Test Familiarity
Practice reading question stems, comparing answer choices, and choosing the single most appropriate response.
Try Before You Buy
Preview 10 questions from this practice exam before purchasing the complete e-book. Review the question style, answers, explanations, and high-yield notes.
10 Free Sample Questions
These 10 questions were selected from the original 120-question source exam to represent all five parts. Open each answer panel after attempting the question.
A 62-year-old male with symptomatic atrial tachycardia is admitted to the cardiac cath lab for an electrophysiology mapping study. The cardiologist maneuvers the diagnostic catheters into the superior wall of the right atrium, focusing the electrical testing on the specialized myocardial tissue cluster responsible for generating the heart's primary pacing impulse. Which of the following anatomical structures is the physician targeting for evaluation?
Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Sinoatrial node
Explanation: The sinoatrial (SA) node is recognized as the natural pacemaker of the heart, dynamically generating electrical impulses that propagate through the atrial myocardium to stimulate contraction. Anatomically, the SA node resides in the superior wall of the right atrium, adjacent to the opening of the superior vena cava. While the Atrioventricular (AV) node, Bundle of His, and Purkinje fibers are integral components of the cardiac conduction pathway that transmit the impulse downstream to the ventricles, they do not initiate the primary pacing impulse in a healthy heart, making the sinoatrial node the correct target.
High-Yield Review Note: Medical coding exams frequently cross-reference cardiac anatomy with procedural descriptions. Associate the "superior wall of the right atrium" and "primary pacemaker/impulse initiator" directly with the sinoatrial (SA) node.
A medical biller is reviewing a physician's scheduling log and notes that a specialized cardiac diagnostic procedure has been ordered for an elderly Medicare beneficiary. Upon verifying regional payer guidelines, the biller discovers that this particular procedure is highly likely to be denied based on an active Local Coverage Determination (LCD) concerning lack of medical necessity. What operational step must the clinic execute prior to delivering this service to protect its financial interests?
Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: A. Have the patient sign an Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN) specifying the exact reason for potential coverage denial.
Explanation: When a service provided to a Medicare beneficiary is expected to be denied based on lack of medical necessity under a Local Coverage Determination (LCD) or National Coverage Determination (NCD), the provider must issue an Advance Beneficiary Notice of Noncoverage (ABN) to the patient before the service is rendered. The ABN must explicitly state the specific service and the clinical reason why Medicare is expected to deny payment, allowing the patient to make an informed decision to accept financial liability. Failing to secure a valid, signed ABN prior to the procedure prevents the clinic from billing the patient if the claim is subsequently denied by Medicare.
High-Yield Review Note: An ABN must be signed before a service is rendered, and it must list a specific, valid reason for potential denial based on an LCD or NCD. Generic or blanket ABNs signed after the fact are legally invalid.
A 66-year-old man with Type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with a cold, black right great toe. The specialist documents dry gangrene directly caused by diabetic peripheral angiopathy. Which ICD-10-CM selection is correct?
Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: A. E11.52
Explanation: E11.52 is the combination code for Type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic peripheral angiopathy with gangrene. It captures the diabetes, the vascular complication, and gangrene described in the note. Separate reporting of I96 is unnecessary because the combination code already includes gangrene.
High-Yield Review Note: Look for a diabetes combination code before assigning separate manifestation codes. Long-term insulin use would require an additional Z79.4 only when that therapy is documented and applicable.
A patient returns for scheduled surveillance three years after complete treatment of cecal adenocarcinoma. Treatment has ended and there is no clinical or radiologic evidence of recurrence. Which diagnosis sequence best describes the encounter?
Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B. Z08, Z85.038
Explanation: Z08 is first-listed for a follow-up examination after completed treatment for a malignant neoplasm when no current malignancy is found. Z85.038 is added to identify the personal history of malignant neoplasm of the large intestine. C18.0 would incorrectly describe active cecal cancer.
High-Yield Review Note: For cancer surveillance after completed treatment, sequence Z08 before the personal-history code. Return to an active C code only when current disease is documented.
During colonoscopy, a transverse-colon polyp is removed by snare and a separate descending-colon polyp is removed by hot biopsy forceps. Which professional coding is correct when modifier 59 is used to show the distinct lesion?
Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: A. 45385, 45384-59
Explanation: CPT 45385 reports removal by snare, and 45384 reports removal by hot biopsy forceps. Both techniques may be reported because they were used on separate lesions. Modifier 59 on 45384 communicates the distinct procedural service when required by the edit and payer; an appropriate X modifier may be preferred by some payers.
High-Yield Review Note: Report each distinct colonoscopy removal technique once, regardless of the number of lesions removed by that technique. Use modifier 59 or the appropriate subset modifier only when documentation and payer edits support it.
Through an open wrist incision, a surgeon releases the transverse carpal ligament to decompress the median nerve. Which CPT code is correct?
Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B. 64721
Explanation: CPT 64721 reports open neuroplasty of the median nerve at the carpal tunnel. CPT 29848 is the endoscopic carpal tunnel release code, not an open or "laparoscopic" procedure. The remaining choices do not describe the specific documented carpal tunnel release.
High-Yield Review Note: Open carpal tunnel release is 64721. Endoscopic carpal tunnel release is 29848, so verify the operative approach.
A patient receives 45 minutes of continuous, one-on-one physical therapy involving specialized therapeutic exercises to develop muscular strength, endurance, range of motion, and flexibility under the direct supervision of a licensed therapist. How many units of CPT code 97110 should the provider report based on the standard CMS 15-minute time-unit rule?
Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: D. 3 units
Explanation: Physical medicine timed codes (such as 97110, therapeutic exercises) are billed in 15-minute increments based on the total time spent with the patient. According to the standard CMS 8-Minute Rule, a single unit requires a minimum of 8 minutes up to 22 minutes of therapy. Two units cover 23 to 37 minutes, and three units cover 38 to 52 minutes. Because the physical therapist spent exactly 45 minutes of one-on-one time with the patient, this duration falls within the 38-to-52-minute bracket, justifying the assignment of exactly 3 units of code 97110.
High-Yield Review Note: The CMS 8-Minute Rule for Timed Codes: 1 Unit = 8–22 minutes; 2 Units = 23–37 minutes; 3 Units = 38–52 minutes; 4 Units = 53–67 minutes. Memorize these midpoints to determine the correct unit quantity on billing exams.
A clinic nurse administers 15 mg of an injectable therapeutic medication from a single-dose 20 mg vial to an outpatient. The remaining 5 mg is discarded according to safety guidelines. The HCPCS Level II code descriptor for this drug is defined as 5 mg per unit. How should this scenario be reported on the claim form?
Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: D. Bill 3 units on line 1, and 1 unit on line 2 with modifier JW.
Explanation: Medicare and commercial payers require specific tracking for discarded drugs from single-dose vials. The total amount administered was 15 mg, which equals 3 units (15 mg÷5 mg). This is reported on the first claim line. The wasted portion was 5 mg, which equals 1 unit (5 mg÷5 mg). To claim the wasted amount for reimbursement, the provider must list the drug code on a separate, second claim line with modifier JW (Drug amount discarded/not administered) attached. Modifier JZ is only used when zero waste has occurred from a single-dose vial.
High-Yield Review Note: Waste Modifier Protocol: When a portion of a single-dose vial is discarded, use two claim lines: Line 1 = Amount administered (no modifier). Line 2 = Discarded amount with modifier JW appended. This prevents compliance errors regarding unused pharmaceutical portions.
An established 64-year-old patient is seen for unstable Type 2 diabetes with polyneuropathy, acute exacerbation of chronic diastolic heart failure, and progression of stage 4 chronic kidney disease. The physician documents a hemoglobin A1c of 9.4%, makes major medication changes, and supports high-complexity medical decision making. Which office E/M code is correct?
Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B. 99215
Explanation: CPT 99215 is the established-patient office or other outpatient visit code requiring high-level medical decision making when selected by MDM. The documented severe exacerbation or progression and intensive medication management support high complexity. CPT 99205 is for a new patient, while 99213 and 99214 represent lower MDM levels.
High-Yield Review Note: Hemoglobin A1c testing does not require fasting, so do not rely on the phrase fasting A1c. Select office E/M level from documented MDM or total time under the applicable rules.
Twenty days after a right total knee arthroplasty, the original surgeon returns the patient to the operating room for arthrotomy of the right knee with exploration, drainage, and deep debridement of an infected intra-articular prosthetic joint; the components are retained. Which code combination is correct?
Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: C. 27310-78, T84.53XA
Explanation: CPT 27310 reports knee arthrotomy with exploration, drainage, or removal of a foreign body and matches the documented intra-articular procedure. Modifier 78 identifies an unplanned return to the operating room by the same physician for a related procedure during the postoperative period. T84.53XA identifies infection and inflammatory reaction due to a right knee prosthesis during the initial encounter.
High-Yield Review Note: Use modifier 78 for a related return to the operating room during the global period. Distinguish intra-articular knee arthrotomy from incision and drainage limited to extra-articular soft tissue.
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Frequently Asked Questions
What is included in this practice exam?
The source edition contains 120 A-D practice questions in five parts, with correct answers, detailed explanations, and high-yield review notes.
How many questions are included?
The complete practice exam contains 120 questions.
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Yes. Answer keys with detailed explanations follow each part, and the source also includes high-yield review notes.
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